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LibraryDermatology

Dermatology · Medicine

Herpes zoster

Also known as Shingles · Zoster · Postherpetic neuralgia (PHN) · Herpes zoster ophthalmicus · Ramsay Hunt syndrome

Herpes zoster (shingles) results from reactivation of latent varicella-zoster virus (VZV) in a dorsal root or cranial-nerve ganglion, producing a painful, unilateral, dermatomal vesicular eruption. Fellowship-level assessment demands mastery of the dermatomal distribution and prodromal pain, the complications of postherpetic neuralgia (and its prevention), herpes zoster ophthalmicus with its sight-threatening keratitis, the Ramsay Hunt syndrome of the geniculate ganglion, disseminated zoster as a marker of immunocompromise, the role and timing of antiviral therapy (aciclovir, valaciclovir, famciclovir), adjunctive corticosteroids, the recombinant zoster vaccine for prevention, and zoster in pregnancy and immunocompromise.

High yieldHigh evidenceUpdated 26 July 2026
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FRCDermABDMRCPNEET-PGINICETRANZCD

Red flags

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus with Hutchinson sign (lesion on the nasal tip) — sight-threatening keratitis; urgent ophthalmology and systemic antiviralsRamsay Hunt syndrome (ear pain, vesicles, facial palsy) — urgent antivirals and corticosteroids for facial-nerve outcomesDisseminated zoster (>20 vesicles beyond the primary dermatome, or visceral involvement) — marker of immunocompromise; systemic antivirals and search for underlying causeMotor zoster with limb or diaphragm weakness — specialist assessment and antiviralsSevere, intractable postherpetic neuralgia — multimodal neuropathic pain managementZoster meningitis, myelitis, or stroke (especially with ophthalmic zoster) — urgent neurology/imaging

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Exam tags

FRCDermABDMRCPNEET-PGINICETRANZCD

Red flags

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus with Hutchinson sign (lesion on the nasal tip) — sight-threatening keratitis; urgent ophthalmology and systemic antiviralsRamsay Hunt syndrome (ear pain, vesicles, facial palsy) — urgent antivirals and corticosteroids for facial-nerve outcomesDisseminated zoster (>20 vesicles beyond the primary dermatome, or visceral involvement) — marker of immunocompromise; systemic antivirals and search for underlying causeMotor zoster with limb or diaphragm weakness — specialist assessment and antiviralsSevere, intractable postherpetic neuralgia — multimodal neuropathic pain managementZoster meningitis, myelitis, or stroke (especially with ophthalmic zoster) — urgent neurology/imaging

The one-line answer

Herpes zoster (shingles) is reactivation of latent varicella-zoster virus (VZV) in a dorsal-root or cranial-nerve ganglion, surfacing as a painful, unilateral, dermatomal vesicular eruption that stops at the midline, often preceded by days of prodromal neuritis. First-line is valaciclovir 1 g three times daily, famciclovir 500 mg three times daily, or aciclovir 800 mg five times daily for seven days, started within 72 hours of rash onset; ophthalmic (Hutchinson sign), Ramsay Hunt, disseminated, and immunocompromised zoster escalate to IV aciclovir 10 mg/kg every eight hours, and prevention is the recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix), two doses.[1][2]

Unilateral dermatomal cluster of vesicles on an erythematous base on the trunk characteristic of herpes zoster
FigureHerpes zoster: a unilateral, dermatomal cluster of vesicles on an erythematous base, with the characteristic stop-at-the-midline distribution on the trunk (thoracic dermatome). (AI-generated educational illustration.)

Meet the patient

A 68-year-old man arrives at 3am with three days of burning across his left flank that the on-call registrar worked up as renal colic — two normal CTs, no stone. This morning a band of red papules appeared over the same strip of skin, and by evening grouped vesicles are tracking from his spine toward his umbilicus, stopping dead at the midline.[1][2]

The pain started before the rash, the rash sits in one dermatome, and the clock for antivirals started seventy-two hours ago. Hold those three facts — pain first, one dermatome, the seventy-two-hour window — and the whole topic falls into place.[1]

One virus, two names — the girdle that comes back

Varicella-zoster virus infects a person twice, under two names. Primary infection is chickenpox (varicella) — a generalised vesicular fever; the virus then retreats into the dorsal-root ganglia of the spinal cord and the sensory ganglia of the cranial nerves (chiefly the trigeminal and the geniculate), where it sits silently for decades, held in check by cell-mediated immunity — CD8 and CD4 T-cells suppressing viral gene transcription.[1][17]

When that T-cell surveillance wanes — with age over fifty, immunosuppression, HIV, transplant, chemotherapy, anti-TNF biologics, JAK inhibitors, prolonged steroids, haematological malignancy, or even local trauma to a ganglion — latency breaks. The virus replicates inside the ganglion, ignites a sensory ganglionitis (the source of prodromal pain), and travels anterograde down the peripheral nerve to erupt in the dermatome that ganglion serves.[1][3]

Etymology for viva gold: zoster is Greek for "girdle" or "belt", because the thoracic eruption wraps the trunk like one; shingles comes from the Latin cingulum, also "girdle". Two languages, one image — and the reason the rash is so often thoracic and unilateral.[2]

The numbers that frame the whole topic:[2]

High-yield numbers for the examiner

1 in 3
Lifetime risk of shingles if unvaccinated
Rises to about 50 percent by age 85; around 70 percent of cases occur in adults over 50.
10 to 20 percent
Post-herpetic neuralgia rate in the over-50s
Risk climbs steeply with age, exceeding 30 percent in the over-80s.
10 to 25 percent
Trigeminal zoster that becomes herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Hutchinson sign on the nasal tip flags nasociliary (V1) involvement.
Over 90 percent
Shingrix efficacy against zoster in 50 to 69 year-olds
Two-dose recombinant glycoprotein E plus AS01B adjuvant; safe in immunocompromise.
Within 72 h
Window from rash onset where antivirals cut PHN
Beyond 72 h, still treat if new vesicles, ophthalmic, Ramsay Hunt, disseminated, or immunocompromised.
[2] [11]

Pain before the rash — the trap that costs

The single most dangerous feature of zoster is that the pain precedes the rash by days. For one to five days (range two to ten) the patient feels burning, tingling, itching, or hyperaesthesia localised to the dermatome about to erupt — and because the skin is still clear, the diagnosis is whatever that dermatome mimics.[1][3]

Dermatome of prodromal pain

  • Left T1 to T4 chest
  • T6 to T8 upper abdomen
  • T10 to L1 flank and groin
  • T12 to L1 right iliac fossa
  • V1 forehead and eye
  • Lumbosacral distribution

The misdiagnosis the registrar reaches for

  • Acute coronary syndrome — the cath lab looms
  • Biliary colic or cholecystitis
  • Renal colic — the CT that finds no stone
  • Acute appendicitis — and a normal appendix is removed
  • Migraine or sinusitis, until the vesicles appear
  • Sciatica or cauda equina
[1] [10]

The classic trap — pain first, rash days later

Prodromal zoster pain in a left thoracic dermatome is ischaemic cardiac pain until the ECG proves otherwise; in the right iliac fossa it is appendicitis until reviewed; in the flank it is renal colic until imaged. The misdiagnosis rate peaks in the 48 hours before the rash — diagnose zoster only after the life-threatening mimic is excluded, never instead of it.[1][10]

Zoster sine herpete is the extreme version of the same problem — dermatomal pain that never produces a rash, confirmed only by VZV PCR of skin, saliva, or CSF, or a rising IgM and IgG. Treat it as zoster once confirmed.[1][5]

Read the dermatome like the consultant does

Three words decide the bedside diagnosis: dermatomal, unilateral, midline-stopping. The eruption sits in the territory of a single dorsal root or cranial sensory nerve, stays on one side of the body, and does not cross the midline — because dermatomes meet at the midline but do not overlap it. Vesicles crossing the midline should make you question the diagnosis or suspect immunocompromise with dissemination.[1][4]

The thoracic dermatomes (T3 to L2) carry the majority of cases, with the trunk the classic site. The lesion timetable is worth memorising because examiners ask it verbatim:[1][3]

  • Day 0 to 1 — erythematous macules and papules in the band.
  • Day 2 to 3 — grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, the classic drop-like herpetiform cluster.
  • Day 4 to 5 — vesicles cloud into pustules.
  • Day 7 to 10 — crusting begins; the patient is infectious until every lesion has crusted.
  • Weeks 2 to 4 — crusts shed, leaving depigmented scars or persistent dysaesthesia.[1]
Dorsal root ganglion and trigeminal ganglion anatomy showing VZV latency and reactivation producing unilateral dermatomal vesicular eruption, with arrows from ganglia down the peripheral nerve to the skin
FigureVZV latency and reactivation: following primary varicella, the virus becomes latent in dorsal-root (sensory) and cranial-nerve ganglia. Reactivation when cell-mediated immunity declines (age >50, immunosuppression, biologics, stress) leads to viral replication in the ganglion, neuronal inflammation (prodromal pain), and anterograde spread to the corresponding dermatome. (AI-generated educational diagram.)
[1]
Body map showing the dermatomes along the trunk, trigeminal V1/V2/V3, cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral dermatomes
FigureBody-dermatome map: thoracic dermatomes T3-L2 are most often involved in herpes zoster; trigeminal V1 (ophthalmic) and geniculate (facial nerve) involvement warrant special management. (AI-generated educational diagram.)

Clinical diagnosis is sufficient in the immunocompetent patient with a classic eruption — no test is needed. Reach for VZV PCR of vesicle fluid (the gold standard, sensitivity above 95 percent) when the picture is atypical, when you must distinguish VZV from HSV, or in immunocompromise; CSF PCR is reserved for suspected meningitis, encephalitis, myelitis, or VZV vasculopathy with stroke.[1][5]

Hutchinson's sign and the V1 fork — sight in the balance

A vesicle on the tip of the nose is an ophthalmology emergency until proven otherwise. The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V1) carries three branches — frontal, lacrimal, and nasociliary — and the nasociliary branch supplies the eye itself (cornea, iris, ciliary body) plus the tip and side of the nose. So a lesion on the nasal tip means the virus has reached the branch that also feeds the cornea.[1][7]

Hutchinson's sign — vesicles on the tip, side, or root of the nose — predicts ocular involvement in more than half of V1 zoster cases, with a positive predictive value approaching 80 percent when the rash is active. Ophthalmic zoster accounts for 10 to 25 percent of trigeminal zoster, and its complications are sight-threatening: epithelial and stromal keratitis, anterior uveitis, scleritis, optic neuritis, choroiditis, and acute retinal necrosis.[7][8]

The slit-lamp rule — every V1 zoster gets ophthalmology

Hutchinson's sign predicts eye disease, but its absence does not exclude it. Every patient with V1 zoster gets an urgent ophthalmology slit-lamp review with fluorescein staining and intraocular pressure within 24 to 72 hours, and again at one to two weeks — delayed uveitis and scleritis can emerge after the rash has crusted. Without prompt antivirals, around half develop chronic eye disease.[7][8]

Management of herpes zoster ophthalmicus: oral valaciclovir 1 g three times daily or famciclovir 500 mg three times daily for 7 to 10 days, started within 72 hours, plus the urgent eye review and topical antiviral or corticosteroid drops as the ophthalmologist prescribes. Escalate to IV aciclovir 10 mg/kg every eight hours for sight-threatening disease (acute retinal necrosis, optic neuritis, severe uveitis), immunocompromise, or an inability to absorb oral therapy.[7][8]

Ramsay Hunt — the ear that paralyses the face

Ear pain, vesicles in the ear canal, and an ipsilateral facial palsy is Ramsay Hunt syndrome — VZV reactivation in the geniculate ganglion of the facial (VII) nerve, with spread through the nervus intermedius to the chorda tympani (taste, anterior two-thirds of the tongue) and anastomoses to the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve.[13][14]

The full picture is a triad plus extras: ipsilateral lower-motor-neurone facial palsy, deep ear pain, and vesicles on the pinna, in the external auditory canal, on the tympanic membrane, or on the anterior tongue and soft palate — with variable sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, and hyperacusis, and loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. When the facial palsy appears without vesicles, call it Ramsay Hunt sine herpete and treat it the same way.[13][14]

Outcomes are worse than Bell palsy, and the clock is just as unforgiving. Untreated, only about 30 percent recover full facial function (House-Brackmann I or II) by six months; treated with antivirals plus corticosteroids within 72 hours, that figure rises to 70 to 80 percent. Sequelae include synkinesis (blinking twitches the mouth corner), hemifacial spasm, crocodile tears (misdirected parasympathetic regrowth causing lacrimation while eating), and permanent taste loss.[13][14]

V1 (ophthalmic) zoster

  • Vesicles on forehead, upper eyelid, tip or side of nose
  • Hutchinson sign on the nasal tip predicts keratitis
  • Risks: keratitis, anterior uveitis, scleritis, optic neuritis, acute retinal necrosis
  • Urgent oral or IV aciclovir plus ophthalmology slit-lamp review
  • Topical aciclovir for epithelial keratitis

VII (geniculate) zoster — Ramsay Hunt

  • Vesicles in ear canal, pinna, tympanic membrane, ipsilateral tongue and palate
  • Ipsilateral lower-motor-neurone facial palsy
  • Sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, hyperacusis
  • Loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
  • IV aciclovir plus prednisolone; protect the eye; facial rehabilitation
[7] [13]

The 72-hour window — antivirals and the clock

Antivirals work only if started early, and the magic number is 72 hours from rash onset. Initiated within that window, they accelerate lesion healing, cut viral shedding, reduce acute pain severity, and modestly lower the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia (number needed to treat roughly 8 to 13).[1][6]

The antiviral ladder for herpes zoster

1

Oral antiviral within 72 h of rash onset for all immunocompetent adults with acute zoster

Valaciclovir 1 g TDS, OR famciclovir 500 mg TDS, OR aciclovir 800 mg five times daily — all for 7 days

2

Continue past 72 h if new vesicles are still appearing, or for ophthalmic, Ramsay Hunt, disseminated, or immunocompromised disease

The 72-hour rule is a default, not a ceiling

3

Escalate to IV aciclovir 10 mg/kg every 8 h (renal-dosed) for sight- or life-threatening disease

HZO with ocular complications, Ramsay Hunt, disseminated zoster, immunocompromise, and CNS disease

4

Extend IV to 14 to 21 days for VZV meningitis, encephalitis, or myelitis

CNS disease needs the longest course

5

Add prednisolone 1 mg/kg/day for 7 days then taper ONLY for Ramsay Hunt syndrome

Corticosteroids do NOT prevent PHN in routine zoster and are not given to the immunocompetent trunk case

[1] [6]

The three oral agents are guanosine analogues activated by viral thymidine kinase, inhibiting viral DNA polymerase. Valaciclovir and famciclovir have three to five times the oral bioavailability of aciclovir and so need less frequent dosing — aciclovir 800 mg five times daily is cheaper but inconvenient, and is the agent most renal-dose adjustments trip on.[1][5]

Antiviral dosing — byte-accurate
AgentOral dose for acute zosterIV dose (severe disease)Pearl
Valaciclovir1 g TDS for 7 daysNot first-line IV (use aciclovir)L-valyl ester of aciclovir; preferred oral agent
Famciclovir500 mg TDS for 7 daysNot first-line IV (use aciclovir)Diacetyl ester of penciclovir; well tolerated
Aciclovir800 mg five times daily for 7 days10 mg/kg every 8 h (15 mg/kg every 8 h for HSV encephalitis)Cheapest; inconvenient oral schedule; renal-dose carefully
[1] [5]

The corticosteroid caveat examiners love. A tapering course of prednisolone may reduce acute pain and speed rash healing in the immunocompetent adult, but it does not prevent post-herpetic neuralgia — so it is not routine. The one syndrome where the steroid is non-negotiable is Ramsay Hunt, where prednisolone 1 mg/kg/day for 7 days plus IV aciclovir is the standard of care for facial-nerve outcomes.[6][13]

Disseminated zoster — the immunocompromise alarm

More than twenty vesicles beyond the primary dermatome, or any visceral involvement, is disseminated zoster — and it is an alarm bell for immunocompromise. Dissemination means viraemic spread of virus to multiple skin sites and organs, almost always in the immunocompromised: HIV with a low CD4 count, solid-organ or bone-marrow transplant recipients (peaking in the first year), chemotherapy, high-dose corticosteroids, haematological malignancy, and anti-TNF or JAK inhibitor therapy.[12][15]

Disseminated zoster — search for the cause

Treat with IV aciclovir 10 mg/kg every 8 hours, dose-adjusted for renal function, for at least 7 to 10 days, continuing oral suppression (valaciclovir 1 g TDS or famciclovir) until full immune reconstitution. Then test — HIV serology in any patient under 50, anyone with recurrent zoster, or any disseminated case — and screen for malignancy, transplant status, and biologic exposure. Disseminated visceral disease (pneumonitis, hepatitis, meningoencephalitis) carries significant mortality untreated.[12][15]

Recurrent zoster is uncommon in the immunocompetent — a second attack occurs in roughly 5 percent, and each recurrence progressively raises the odds of undetected immunosuppression. A patient under 50 with their second bout of shingles earns an HIV test and an immune workup on the spot.[4][15]

Post-herpetic neuralgia — the complication that outlives the rash

Post-herpetic neuralgia (PHN) is dermatomal pain persisting beyond 90 days from rash onset, and it is the complication patients fear most. The pain is neuropathic: burning, lancinating or shock-like, with allodynia (the touch of clothing or a breeze is agonising) and hyperalgesia. Risk rises steeply with age — uncommon under 40, but affecting 20 to 30 percent of the over-80s — and with severe acute pain, a severe rash, ophthalmic distribution, and immunocompromise.[6][9]

The mechanism is deafferentation: peripheral sensory-axon loss, sodium-channel accumulation driving ectopic firing, dorsal-horn sensitisation (wind-up and microglial activation), and failure of descending inhibition. Trigeminal PHN — particularly V1 — is among the most refractory, because the nerve supply to the face and eye is dense and the allodynia can be disabling.[9][10]

PHN pharmacotherapy at a glance

300-1800 mg/d
Gabapentin (divided TDS)
Titrate over 2-4 weeks; renally dosed.
150-600 mg/d
Pregabalin (divided BID)
Faster onset than gabapentin; renally dosed.
5% patch
Topical lidocaine
Twelve hours on, twelve hours off; minimal systemic exposure.
8% patch
Capsaicin (Qutenza)
Single 60-minute in-clinic application; relief up to twelve weeks.
10-150 mg nocte
TCA (nortriptyline)
ECG before initiating in adults over forty or cardiac risk.
[6] [9]

The ladder runs in three steps, all with named drugs at named doses:[1][9]

  • Gabapentinoids first — gabapentin (start 300 mg nocte, titrate to 300 to 600 mg three times daily, max 3600 mg/day) or pregabalin (start 75 mg twice daily, titrate to 150 to 300 mg twice daily). Both are alpha-2-delta calcium-channel ligands; both are renally dosed and carry a suicidality warning.
  • Tricyclic antidepressants — amitriptyline or nortriptyline 10 to 150 mg nocte; effective but anticholinergic, so check an ECG first in the over-40s or cardiac-risk patient (QT prolongation).
  • Topicals for focal disease — lidocaine 5 percent patch (twelve hours on, twelve off) and capsaicin 8 percent patch (a single 60-minute in-clinic application giving up to twelve weeks of relief). Capsaicin needs pre-treatment lidocaine and local cooling.[1][6]

Refractory PHN goes to combination therapy (gabapentinoid plus TCA, or gabapentinoid plus topical), short-course tramadol or oxycodone as rescue, and interventional options through the pain team — nerve blocks, epidural injection, sympathetic blockade, spinal-cord or peripheral-nerve stimulation.[1][9]

Vaccination — Shingrix twice, and win

The recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) is the single most consequential intervention in this topic, and it needs two doses. It is recombinant VZV glycoprotein E antigen plus the AS01B adjuvant (monophosphoryl lipid A and QS-21 saponin in a liposome), given as two intramuscular doses in the deltoid at month 0 and month 2 (range 1 to 6 months if the second is delayed). Two doses are mandatory — single-dose efficacy is markedly lower and not licensed.[11][18]

Shingrix efficacy (ZOE-50 and ZOE-70)

97 percent
Efficacy at age 50 to 59
ZOE-50 trial.
90 percent
Efficacy at age 60 to 69
ZOE-50 and ZOE-70.
89 percent
Efficacy at age 70 and over
ZOE-70; PHN protection parallels zoster protection.
7 to 9 years
Duration of protection
Possible boosting at year 10.
Two doses
Schedule — month 0 and month 2
Both doses required; non-live, safe in immunocompromise.
[11] [18]

Because Shingrix is non-live, it is safe and recommended in selected immunocompromised adults — HIV with CD4 at least 200, post-bone-marrow and solid-organ transplant on low-dose immunosuppression, and patients on low-dose corticosteroids — though responses are blunted. ACIP 2022 recommends it for immunocompetent adults 50 and over and immunocompromised adults 19 and over on low-level immunosuppression. Serology is not required first — nearly all adults over 50 in VZV-endemic regions are already seropositive.[11][18]

Diagram of the two-dose Shingrix recombinant zoster vaccine schedule at 0 and 2 months, with efficacy data for ages 50-69 and >=70; vaccine storage temperature; route of administration
FigureRecombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix): two doses at 0 and 2 months in immunocompetent adults >=50 (and immunocompromised >=18 in some guidelines). Efficacy against zoster and PHN exceeds 90% in 50-69 and ~89% in >=70. Safe in immunocompromised adults. (AI-generated educational diagram.)
[11]

The older live vaccine (Zostavax) is largely retired. It used live attenuated Oka/Merck VZV at fourteen times the varicella dose, given as a single subcutaneous injection, with 51 percent efficacy against zoster and 67 percent against PHN — efficacy that waned after five to eight years. Because it is live, it is contraindicated in the immunocompromised (HIV with CD4 under 200, transplant, chemotherapy, biologics, high-dose steroids), and it has been withdrawn from the US market. Where Shingrix is unavailable it remains an option for the immunocompetent.[1][11]

Shingrix (recombinant, RZV)

  • Recombinant VZV glycoprotein E plus AS01B adjuvant
  • Two intramuscular doses at month 0 and month 2
  • Efficacy 89 to 97 percent against zoster across ages 50 and over
  • PHN efficacy parallels zoster efficacy
  • Durable to seven to nine years
  • Safe and preferred in the immunocompromised (non-live)
  • ACIP-preferred vaccine

Zostavax (live, ZVL)

  • Live attenuated Oka/Merck VZV at fourteen-times varicella dose
  • Single subcutaneous dose
  • Efficacy 51 percent against zoster, 67 percent against PHN
  • Efficacy wanes after five to eight years
  • Contraindicated in the immunocompromised
  • Withdrawn from the US market; rarely used elsewhere
  • May be offered if Shingrix unavailable and the patient is immunocompetent
[11] [18]

An emerging dividend: large observational data suggest recombinant zoster vaccination is associated with a reduced risk of dementia in the years after the dose — a signal that has pushed Shingrix from a pure PHN-prevention tool toward broader protective value, though the mechanism is still being worked out.[18][11]

Pregnancy, immunocompromise, and the special populations

Pregnancy is where the varicella-versus-zoster distinction becomes critical. Primary varicella in the first 20 weeks carries a fetal varicella embryopathy risk — limb hypoplasia, ocular defects, cicatricial skin lesions, and neurodevelopmental delay — and severe maternal varicella near delivery can transmit to the newborn. Maternal shingles, by contrast, does not carry the embryopathy risk — the fetus is already exposed to the mother's VZV antibodies — but a severe maternal zoster near delivery still warrants IV aciclovir, and a seronegative pregnant woman exposed to varicella gets VZIG.[16][17]

Zoster in special populations
PopulationWhat changesWhat you do
PregnancyPrimary varicella carries embryopathy risk; shingles does not; severe disease near delivery can transmitIV aciclovir for severe zoster; VZIG for seronegative exposed pregnant women
HIV-positiveSevere or disseminated disease; recurrent zoster flags untreated HIV or low CD4IV aciclovir for severe disease; oral suppression until CD4 over 200 sustained; HIV test any under-50 zoster
Transplant recipientsRisk peaks in the first year post-transplantIV aciclovir for severe disease; consider prophylactic oral valaciclovir during maximal immunosuppression
Biologic therapyHighest risk with anti-TNF agents and JAK inhibitors; lowest with low-dose methotrexateScreen VZV serology and give Shingrix before starting the biologic
CancerHaematological malignancy and chemotherapy carry the highest zoster riskShingrix where licensed; IV aciclovir for active disseminated disease
ElderlyHighest PHN risk; the strongest indication for ShingrixTwo-dose Shingrix; aggressive early antiviral and PHN prevention
[15] [16] [17]

Two related complications complete the picture. Motor zoster produces segmental paresis in the affected myotome — diaphragmatic paresis (C3 to C5, look for an elevated hemidiaphragm on the chest film), limb weakness, or sacral involvement causing urinary retention (rule out cauda equina with MRI). VZV vasculopathy produces stroke — a recognised though uncommon complication, especially after V1 zoster — and zoster also carries a measurable short-term rise in cardiovascular and cerebrovascular events in the weeks after the rash.[1][10]

How patients come to harm — the preventable list

  • The prodrome worked up as renal colic or appendicitis for two days while the antiviral window closes — the preventable delay.[1]
  • An ophthalmic zoster discharged without a slit-lamp review, returning blind in one eye from undiagnosed keratitis or acute retinal necrosis.[7][8]
  • A Ramsay Hunt syndrome treated as Bell palsy and sent home without antivirals or steroids — leaving a permanent facial palsy.[13][14]
  • A disseminated zoster in a young patient treated as just shingles without an HIV test, missing the underlying diagnosis.[12][15]
  • An immunocompromised patient given oral antivirals for disseminated disease that needed IV aciclovir.[12]
  • PHN dismissed as expected at this age with no neuropathic agent started, leaving an elderly patient housebound with allodynia for a year.[6][9]
  • A pregnant woman with primary varicella not given VZIG and not counselled on embryopathy risk.[16][17]
  • A patient eligible for Shingrix who never gets it — the most preventable harm of all, because the vaccine is over 90 percent effective.[11][18]

The mantra, and the mnemonic

SHINGLES

S

Start valaciclovir 1 g TDS or famciclovir 500 mg TDS within 72 h of rash onset

H

Hutchinson sign (nasal-tip vesicle) means urgent ophthalmology and slit-lamp for HZO

I

Immunocompromised or disseminated means IV aciclovir and an HIV test

N

Neuropathic pain (PHN) needs gabapentinoid or TCA, plus topical lidocaine or capsaicin

G

Geniculate zoster (Ramsay Hunt) needs antiviral plus prednisolone for the facial nerve

L

Look for immunosuppression in any zoster under 50 or any recurrence

E

Educate early that PHN risk rises with age — warn the patient

S

Shingrix, two doses, safe in immunocompromised adults over 18

[1] [6]

The mantra: One dermatome, one side, stops at the midline — antivirals within seventy-two hours, the nose-tip means the eye, the ear means the face, and Shingrix twice to prevent the lot.[1][11]

The viva honesty line

"I recognise zoster by its unilateral dermatomal vesicular eruption that stops at the midline, often preceded by days of prodromal pain. I start oral valaciclovir 1 g three times daily, famciclovir 500 mg three times daily, or aciclovir 800 mg five times daily for seven days within 72 hours of rash onset. I escalate to IV aciclovir 10 mg/kg every eight hours for ophthalmic zoster with ocular involvement, Ramsay Hunt, disseminated or immunocompromised disease, and CNS involvement. Every V1 zoster gets an urgent ophthalmology slit-lamp; every Ramsay Hunt gets prednisolone 1 mg/kg/day plus antivirals. I screen for HIV and immunosuppression in any patient under 50, any recurrence, or any dissemination. I treat PHN with a gabapentinoid or TCA plus a topical, and I offer Shingrix — two doses — to every immunocompetent adult over 50 and selected immunocompromised adults over 18."[1][13]

Ward-round test — three stems, thirty seconds each

Stem 1 — the man from the top of the topic (answer)

The 68-year-old with three days of left flank pain worked up as renal colic, now with a band of vesicles stopping at the midline. It is 60 hours since the rash appeared. What do you do? Model: This is thoracic herpes zoster — the prodromal pain mimicked renal colic, the dermatomal midline-stopping vesicles confirm it. Start oral valaciclovir 1 g three times daily (or famciclovir 500 mg TDS, or aciclovir 800 mg five times daily) for seven days — still within the 72-hour window. Give adequate analgesia, warn the patient about post-herpetic neuralgia, and arrange Shingrix once the acute episode has settled. No HIV test needed unless he is under 50 or recurs.[1][6]

Stem 2 — the vesicle on the nose-tip (answer)

A 72-year-old presents with V1 zoster and a vesicle on the tip of her nose. Her eye is not yet painful. What is the critical next step? Model: This is Hutchinson's sign — the nasal tip is nasociliary territory, and nasociliary also supplies the cornea. The sign predicts ocular involvement in over half of cases, but its absence does not exclude eye disease either. She needs an urgent ophthalmology slit-lamp review with fluorescein staining and intraocular pressure within 24 to 72 hours, and again at one to two weeks, plus oral valaciclovir 1 g TDS or famciclovir 500 mg TDS for 7 to 10 days. Escalate to IV aciclovir 10 mg/kg every 8 hours if slit-lamp finds keratitis, uveitis, or acute retinal necrosis.[7][8]

Stem 3 — the young man with scattered vesicles (answer)

A 34-year-old presents with shingles on one thoracic dermatome plus scattered vesicles across his back and chest, and a three-month history of weight loss and night sweats. What is the diagnosis, and what do you do in the first hour? Model: This is disseminated herpes zoster in an immunocompromised host — more than 20 vesicles beyond the primary dermatome is the threshold, and at 34 with weight loss and night sweats the working diagnosis is undiagnosed HIV with a low CD4. Start IV aciclovir 10 mg/kg every 8 hours renal-dosed for at least 7 to 10 days, send an HIV test and an immune workup on the first bloods, and isolate from pregnant and immunocompromised contacts until all lesions crust. The skin finding is the alarm bell for the systemic diagnosis.[12][15]

References

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