Derm · Dermatology
Herpes zoster
Also known as Shingles · Zoster · Postherpetic neuralgia (PHN) · Herpes zoster ophthalmicus · Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Herpes zoster (shingles) results from reactivation of latent varicella-zoster virus (VZV) in a dorsal root or cranial-nerve ganglion, producing a painful, unilateral, dermatomal vesicular eruption. Fellowship-level assessment demands mastery of the dermatomal distribution and prodromal pain, the complications of postherpetic neuralgia (and its prevention), herpes zoster ophthalmicus with its sight-threatening keratitis, the Ramsay Hunt syndrome of the geniculate ganglion, disseminated zoster as a marker of immunocompromise, the role and timing of antiviral therapy (aciclovir, valaciclovir, famciclovir), adjunctive corticosteroids, the recombinant zoster vaccine for prevention, and zoster in pregnancy and immunocompromise.
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Target exams
Red flags
- Herpes zoster ophthalmicus with Hutchinson sign (lesion on the nasal tip) — sight-threatening keratitis; urgent ophthalmology and systemic antivirals
- Ramsay Hunt syndrome (ear pain, vesicles, facial palsy) — urgent antivirals and corticosteroids for facial-nerve outcomes
- Disseminated zoster (>20 vesicles beyond the primary dermatome, or visceral involvement) — marker of immunocompromise; systemic antivirals and search for underlying cause
- Motor zoster with limb or diaphragm weakness — specialist assessment and antivirals
- Severe, intractable postherpetic neuralgia — multimodal neuropathic pain management
- Zoster meningitis, myelitis, or stroke (especially with ophthalmic zoster) — urgent neurology/imaging
Meet the patient
A 68-year-old man arrives at 3am with three days of burning across his left flank that the on-call registrar worked up as renal colic — two normal CTs, no stone. This morning a band of red papules appeared over the same strip of skin, and by evening grouped vesicles are tracking from his spine toward his umbilicus, stopping dead at the midline.[1][2]
The pain started before the rash, the rash sits in one dermatome, and the clock for antivirals started seventy-two hours ago. Hold those three facts — pain first, one dermatome, the seventy-two-hour window — and the whole topic falls into place.[1]
One virus, two names — the girdle that comes back
Varicella-zoster virus infects a person twice, under two names. Primary infection is chickenpox (varicella) — a generalised vesicular fever; the virus then retreats into the dorsal-root ganglia of the spinal cord and the sensory ganglia of the cranial nerves (chiefly the trigeminal and the geniculate), where it sits silently for decades, held in check by cell-mediated immunity — CD8 and CD4 T-cells suppressing viral gene transcription.[1][17]
When that T-cell surveillance wanes — with age over fifty, immunosuppression, HIV, transplant, chemotherapy, anti-TNF biologics, JAK inhibitors, prolonged steroids, haematological malignancy, or even local trauma to a ganglion — latency breaks. The virus replicates inside the ganglion, ignites a sensory ganglionitis (the source of prodromal pain), and travels anterograde down the peripheral nerve to erupt in the dermatome that ganglion serves.[1][3]
Etymology for viva gold: zoster is Greek for "girdle" or "belt", because the thoracic eruption wraps the trunk like one; shingles comes from the Latin cingulum, also "girdle". Two languages, one image — and reason rash is so often thoracic and unilateral.[2]
The numbers that frame the whole topic:[2]
High-yield numbers for the examiner
Pain before the rash — the trap that costs
The single most dangerous feature of zoster is that the pain precedes the rash by days. For one to five days (range two to ten) the patient feels burning, tingling, itching, or hyperaesthesia localised to the dermatome about to erupt — and because the skin is still clear, the diagnosis is whatever that dermatome mimics.[1][3]
Dermatome of prodromal pain
- Left T1 to T4 chest
- T6 to T8 upper abdomen
- T10 to L1 flank and groin
- T12 to L1 right iliac fossa
- V1 forehead and eye
- Lumbosacral distribution
The misdiagnosis the registrar reaches for
- Acute coronary syndrome — the cath lab looms
- Biliary colic or cholecystitis
- Renal colic — the CT that finds no stone
- Acute appendicitis — and a normal appendix is removed
- Migraine or sinusitis, until the vesicles appear
- Sciatica or cauda equina
Zoster sine herpete is the extreme version of the same problem — dermatomal pain that never produces a rash, confirmed only by VZV PCR of skin, saliva, or CSF, or a rising IgM and IgG. Treat it as zoster once confirmed.[1][5]
Read the dermatome like the consultant does
Three words decide the bedside diagnosis: dermatomal, unilateral, midline-stopping. The eruption sits in the territory of a single dorsal root or cranial sensory nerve, stays on one side of the body, and does not cross the midline — because dermatomes meet at the midline but do not overlap it. Vesicles crossing the midline should make you question the diagnosis or suspect immunocompromise with dissemination.[1][4]
The thoracic dermatomes (T3 to L2) carry the majority of cases, with trunk classic site. The lesion timetable is worth memorising because examiners ask it verbatim:[1][3]
- Day 0 to 1 — erythematous macules and papules in the band.
- Day 2 to 3 — grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, the classic drop-like herpetiform cluster.
- Day 4 to 5 — vesicles cloud into pustules.
- Day 7 to 10 — crusting begins; the patient is infectious until every lesion has crusted.
- Weeks 2 to 4 — crusts shed, leaving depigmented scars or persistent dysaesthesia.[1]
Clinical diagnosis is sufficient in the immunocompetent patient with a classic eruption — no test is needed. Reach for VZV PCR of vesicle fluid (the gold standard, sensitivity above 95 percent) when the picture is atypical, when you must distinguish VZV from HSV, or in immunocompromise; CSF PCR is reserved for suspected meningitis, encephalitis, myelitis, or VZV vasculopathy with stroke.[1][5]
Hutchinson's sign and the V1 fork — sight in the balance
A vesicle on the tip of the nose is an ophthalmology emergency until proven otherwise. The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V1) carries three branches — frontal, lacrimal, and nasociliary — and the nasociliary branch supplies the eye itself (cornea, iris, ciliary body) plus the tip and side of the nose. So a lesion on the nasal tip means the virus has reached the branch that also feeds the cornea.[1][7]
Hutchinson's sign — vesicles on the tip, side, or root of the nose — predicts ocular involvement in more than half of V1 zoster cases, with a positive predictive value approaching 80 percent when the rash is active. Ophthalmic zoster accounts for 10 to 25 percent of trigeminal zoster, and its complications are sight-threatening: epithelial and stromal keratitis, anterior uveitis, scleritis, optic neuritis, choroiditis, and acute retinal necrosis.[7][8]
Management of herpes zoster ophthalmicus: the same oral antivirals used for acute zoster — valaciclovir 1 g three times daily or famciclovir 500 mg three times daily for seven days — started as early as possible, ideally within three days, plus the urgent eye review and topical therapy as the ophthalmologist prescribes. Escalate to intravenous aciclovir for sight-threatening disease (acute retinal necrosis, optic neuritis, severe uveitis), immunocompromise, or an inability to absorb oral therapy.[7][8][19][20]
Ramsay Hunt — the ear that paralyses the face
Ear pain, vesicles in the ear canal, and an ipsilateral facial palsy is Ramsay Hunt syndrome — VZV reactivation in the geniculate ganglion of the facial (VII) nerve, with spread through the nervus intermedius to the chorda tympani (taste, anterior two-thirds of the tongue) and anastomoses to the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve.[13][14]
The full picture is a triad plus extras: ipsilateral lower-motor-neurone facial palsy, deep ear pain, and vesicles on the pinna, in the external auditory canal, on the tympanic membrane, or on the anterior tongue and soft palate — with variable sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, and hyperacusis, and loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. When the facial palsy appears without vesicles, call it Ramsay Hunt sine herpete and treat it the same way.[13][14]
Outcomes are worse than Bell palsy, and the clock is just as unforgiving. Untreated, only about 30 percent recover full facial function (House-Brackmann I or II) by six months; treated with antivirals plus corticosteroids within 72 hours, that figure rises to 70 to 80 percent. Sequelae include synkinesis (blinking twitches the mouth corner), hemifacial spasm, crocodile tears (misdirected parasympathetic regrowth causing lacrimation while eating), and permanent taste loss.[13][14]
V1 (ophthalmic) zoster
- Vesicles on forehead, upper eyelid, tip or side of nose
- Hutchinson sign on the nasal tip predicts keratitis
- Risks: keratitis, anterior uveitis, scleritis, optic neuritis, acute retinal necrosis
- Urgent oral or IV aciclovir plus ophthalmology slit-lamp review
- Topical aciclovir for epithelial keratitis
VII (geniculate) zoster — Ramsay Hunt
- Vesicles in ear canal, pinna, tympanic membrane, ipsilateral tongue and palate
- Ipsilateral lower-motor-neurone facial palsy
- Sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, hyperacusis
- Loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
- IV aciclovir plus prednisolone; protect the eye; facial rehabilitation
The 72-hour window — antivirals and the clock
Antivirals work only if started early, and the magic number is 72 hours from rash onset. Initiated within that window, they accelerate lesion healing, cut viral shedding, reduce acute pain severity, and modestly lower the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia (number needed to treat roughly 8 to 13).[1][6]
The antiviral ladder for herpes zoster
- 1
Oral antiviral within 72 h of rash onset for all immunocompetent adults with acute zoster
Valaciclovir 1 g TDS, OR famciclovir 500 mg TDS, OR aciclovir 800 mg five times daily — all for 7 days
- 2
Continue past 72 h if new vesicles are still appearing, or for ophthalmic, Ramsay Hunt, disseminated, or immunocompromised disease
The 72-hour rule is a default, not a ceiling
- 3
Escalate to IV aciclovir (renal-dosed) for sight- or life-threatening disease
HZO with ocular complications, Ramsay Hunt, disseminated zoster, immunocompromise, and CNS disease
- 4
Treat CNS zoster (meningitis, encephalitis, myelitis) with prolonged specialist-directed intravenous therapy
CNS disease needs the longest course and expert input
- 5
Add a corticosteroid ONLY for Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Antivirals plus corticosteroids are the recommended combination in Ramsay Hunt; steroids do NOT prevent PHN in routine zoster
Valaciclovir is the L-valyl ester of aciclovir, rapidly converted in vivo to aciclovir and giving three-to-five-fold increases in aciclovir bioavailability — hence less frequent dosing than oral aciclovir, which must be taken five times daily and is the schedule most renal-dose adjustments trip on. Famciclovir showed a similar safety profile to placebo in its pivotal trial.[19][20]
| Agent | Oral dose for acute zoster | IV use (severe disease) | Pearl |
|---|---|---|---|
| Valaciclovir | 1 g TDS for 7 days | Not used IV (use aciclovir) | L-valyl ester of aciclovir; three-to-five-fold higher aciclovir bioavailability |
| Famciclovir | 500 mg TDS for 7 days | Not used IV (use aciclovir) | Safety profile similar to placebo in the pivotal trial |
| Aciclovir | 800 mg five times daily for 7 days | Reserved for severe, disseminated, or visceral disease | The inconvenient five-times-daily oral schedule; renal-dose carefully |
The corticosteroid caveat examiners love. In the pivotal factorial trial, adding a tapering course of prednisone to aciclovir accelerated crusting and healing, return to uninterrupted sleep, and return to usual activity — but resolution of pain over six months did not differ, so corticosteroids do not prevent post-herpetic neuralgia and are not routine. The one syndrome where the steroid is standard is Ramsay Hunt, where combination treatment with antiviral agents plus corticosteroids is recommended.[21][14]
Disseminated zoster — the immunocompromise alarm
More than twenty vesicles beyond the primary dermatome, or any visceral involvement, is disseminated zoster — and it is an alarm bell for immunocompromise. Dissemination means viraemic spread of virus to multiple skin sites and organs, almost always in the immunocompromised: HIV with a low CD4 count, solid-organ or bone-marrow transplant recipients (peaking in the first year), chemotherapy, high-dose corticosteroids, haematological malignancy, and anti-TNF or JAK inhibitor therapy.[12][15]
Recurrent zoster is uncommon in the immunocompetent — a second attack occurs in roughly 5 percent, and each recurrence progressively raises the odds of undetected immunosuppression. A patient under 50 with their second bout of shingles earns an HIV test and an immune workup on the spot.[4][15]
Post-herpetic neuralgia — the complication that outlives the rash
Post-herpetic neuralgia (PHN) is dermatomal pain persisting beyond 90 days from rash onset, and it is the complication patients fear most. The pain is neuropathic: burning, lancinating or shock-like, with allodynia (the touch of clothing or a breeze is agonising) and hyperalgesia. Risk rises steeply with age — uncommon under 40, but affecting 20 to 30 percent of the over-80s — and with severe acute pain, a severe rash, ophthalmic distribution, and immunocompromise.[6][9]
The mechanism is deafferentation: peripheral sensory-axon loss, sodium-channel accumulation driving ectopic firing, dorsal-horn sensitisation (wind-up and microglial activation), and failure of descending inhibition. Trigeminal PHN — particularly V1 — is among the most refractory, because the nerve supply to the face and eye is dense and the allodynia can be disabling.[9][10]
PHN pharmacotherapy at a glance
The ladder runs in three steps, all with named drugs at named doses:[1][9]
- Gabapentinoids first — gabapentin (titrated over four weeks to a maximum of 3600 mg/day in the pivotal trial) or pregabalin (600 mg/day, halved to 300 mg/day when creatinine clearance is 30 to 60 mL/min).
- Tricyclic antidepressants — nortriptyline or amitriptyline titrated from a low nightly dose; anticholinergic burden limits their use in the elderly.
- Topicals for focal disease — lidocaine 5 percent patch applied for twelve-hour sessions (minimal systemic absorption) and capsaicin 8 percent patch (a single 60-minute in-clinic application giving relief through twelve weeks); transient erythema and application-site pain are common with capsaicin.[22][23][24][25]
Refractory PHN goes to combination therapy (gabapentinoid plus TCA, or gabapentinoid plus topical), short-course tramadol or oxycodone as rescue, and interventional options through the pain team — nerve blocks, epidural injection, sympathetic blockade, spinal-cord or peripheral-nerve stimulation.[1][9]
Vaccination — Shingrix twice, and win
The recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) is the single most consequential intervention in this topic, and it needs two doses. It is recombinant VZV glycoprotein E antigen plus the AS01B adjuvant (monophosphoryl lipid A and QS-21 saponin in a liposome), given as two intramuscular doses in the deltoid at month 0 and month 2 (range 1 to 6 months if the second is delayed). Two doses are mandatory — single-dose efficacy is markedly lower and not licensed.[11][18]
Shingrix efficacy (ZOE-50)
Because Shingrix is non-live, it is safe and recommended in selected immunocompromised adults — HIV with CD4 at least 200, post-bone-marrow and solid-organ transplant on low-dose immunosuppression, and patients on low-dose corticosteroids — though responses are blunted. ACIP 2022 recommends it for immunocompetent adults 50 and over and immunocompromised adults 19 and over on low-level immunosuppression. Serology is not required first — nearly all adults over 50 in VZV-endemic regions are already seropositive.[11][18]
[11]The older live vaccine (Zostavax) is largely retired. It used live attenuated Oka/Merck VZV at fourteen times the varicella dose, given as a single subcutaneous injection, with 51 percent efficacy against zoster and 67 percent against PHN — efficacy that waned after five to eight years. Because it is live, it is contraindicated in the immunocompromised (HIV with CD4 under 200, transplant, chemotherapy, biologics, high-dose steroids), and it has been withdrawn from the US market. Where Shingrix is unavailable it remains an option for the immunocompetent.[1][11]
Shingrix (recombinant, RZV)
- Recombinant VZV glycoprotein E plus AS01B adjuvant
- Two intramuscular doses at month 0 and month 2
- Efficacy 89 to 97 percent against zoster across ages 50 and over
- PHN efficacy parallels zoster efficacy
- Durable to seven to nine years
- Safe and preferred in the immunocompromised (non-live)
- ACIP-preferred vaccine
Zostavax (live, ZVL)
- Live attenuated Oka/Merck VZV at fourteen-times varicella dose
- Single subcutaneous dose
- Efficacy 51 percent against zoster, 67 percent against PHN
- Efficacy wanes after five to eight years
- Contraindicated in the immunocompromised
- Withdrawn from the US market; rarely used elsewhere
- May be offered if Shingrix unavailable and the patient is immunocompetent
An emerging dividend: large observational data suggest recombinant zoster vaccination is associated with a reduced risk of dementia in the years after the dose — a signal that has pushed Shingrix from a pure PHN-prevention tool toward broader protective value, though the mechanism is still being worked out.[18][11]
Pregnancy, immunocompromise, and the special populations
Pregnancy is where the varicella-versus-zoster distinction becomes critical. Primary varicella in the first 20 weeks carries a fetal varicella embryopathy risk — limb hypoplasia, ocular defects, cicatricial skin lesions, and neurodevelopmental delay — and severe maternal varicella near delivery can transmit to the newborn. Maternal shingles, by contrast, does not carry the embryopathy risk — the fetus is already exposed to the mother's VZV antibodies — but a severe maternal zoster near delivery still warrants IV aciclovir, and a seronegative pregnant woman exposed to varicella gets VZIG.[16][17]
| Population | What changes | What you do |
|---|---|---|
| Pregnancy | Primary varicella carries embryopathy risk; shingles does not; severe disease near delivery can transmit | IV aciclovir for severe zoster; VZIG for seronegative exposed pregnant women |
| HIV-positive | Severe or disseminated disease; recurrent zoster flags untreated HIV or low CD4 | IV aciclovir for severe disease; oral suppression until CD4 over 200 sustained; HIV test any under-50 zoster |
| Transplant recipients | Risk peaks in the first year post-transplant | IV aciclovir for severe disease; consider prophylactic oral valaciclovir during maximal immunosuppression |
| Biologic therapy | Highest risk with anti-TNF agents and JAK inhibitors; lowest with low-dose methotrexate | Screen VZV serology and give Shingrix before starting the biologic |
| Cancer | Haematological malignancy and chemotherapy carry the highest zoster risk | Shingrix where licensed; IV aciclovir for active disseminated disease |
| Elderly | Highest PHN risk; the strongest indication for Shingrix | Two-dose Shingrix; aggressive early antiviral and PHN prevention |
Two related complications complete the picture. Motor zoster produces segmental paresis in the affected myotome — diaphragmatic paresis (C3 to C5, look for an elevated hemidiaphragm on the chest film), limb weakness, or sacral involvement causing urinary retention (rule out cauda equina with MRI). VZV vasculopathy produces stroke — a recognised though uncommon complication, especially after V1 zoster — and zoster also carries a measurable short-term rise in cardiovascular and cerebrovascular events in the weeks after the rash.[1][10]
How patients come to harm — the preventable list
- The prodrome worked up as renal colic or appendicitis for two days while the antiviral window closes — the preventable delay.[1]
- An ophthalmic zoster discharged without a slit-lamp review, returning blind in one eye from undiagnosed keratitis or acute retinal necrosis.[7][8]
- A Ramsay Hunt syndrome treated as Bell palsy and sent home without antivirals or steroids — leaving a permanent facial palsy.[13][14]
- A disseminated zoster in a young patient treated as just shingles without an HIV test, missing the underlying diagnosis.[12][15]
- An immunocompromised patient given oral antivirals for disseminated disease that needed IV aciclovir.[12]
- PHN dismissed as expected at this age with no neuropathic agent started, leaving an elderly patient housebound with allodynia for a year.[6][9]
- A pregnant woman with primary varicella not given VZIG and not counselled on embryopathy risk.[16][17]
- A patient eligible for Shingrix who never gets it — the most preventable harm of all, because the vaccine is over 90 percent effective.[11][18]
The mantra, and the mnemonic
SHINGLES
- SStart valaciclovir 1 g TDS or famciclovir 500 mg TDS within 72 h of rash onset
- HHutchinson sign (nasal-tip vesicle) means urgent ophthalmology and slit-lamp for HZO
- IImmunocompromised or disseminated means IV aciclovir and a search for the cause
- NNeuropathic pain (PHN) needs gabapentinoid or TCA, plus topical lidocaine or capsaicin
- GGeniculate zoster (Ramsay Hunt) needs antiviral plus corticosteroid combination treatment
- LLook for immunosuppression in any zoster under 50 or any recurrence
- EEducate early that PHN risk rises with age — warn the patient
- SShingrix, two doses two months apart — non-live, so preferred when immunity is waning
The mantra: One dermatome, one side, stops at the midline — antivirals within seventy-two hours, the nose-tip means the eye, the ear means the face, and Shingrix twice to prevent the lot.[1][11]
Ward-round test — three stems, thirty seconds each
Stem 1 — the man from the top of the topic (answer)ShowHide
The 68-year-old with three days of left flank pain worked up as renal colic, now with a band of vesicles stopping at the midline. It is 60 hours since the rash appeared. What do you do? Model: This is thoracic herpes zoster — the prodromal pain mimicked renal colic, the dermatomal midline-stopping vesicles confirm it. Start oral valaciclovir 1 g three times daily (or famciclovir 500 mg TDS, or aciclovir 800 mg five times daily) for seven days — still within the 72-hour window. Give adequate analgesia, warn the patient about post-herpetic neuralgia, and raise recombinant zoster vaccination with him once the acute episode has settled.[19][20][11]
Stem 2 — the vesicle on the nose-tip (answer)ShowHide
A 72-year-old presents with V1 zoster and a vesicle on the tip of her nose. Her eye is not yet painful. What is the critical next step? Model: This is Hutchinson's sign — the nasal tip is nasociliary territory, and nasociliary also supplies the cornea. Ocular involvement occurs in about half of patients with HZO, and the absence of the sign does not exclude eye disease, so she needs urgent ophthalmology review plus oral antiviral therapy started promptly — valaciclovir 1 g TDS or famciclovir 500 mg TDS, ideally within three days of onset. Escalate to intravenous aciclovir if the slit lamp finds keratitis, uveitis, or acute retinal necrosis.[7][8][19][20]
Stem 3 — the young man with scattered vesicles (answer)ShowHide
A 34-year-old presents with shingles on one thoracic dermatome plus scattered vesicles across his back and chest, and a three-month history of weight loss and night sweats. What is the diagnosis, and what do you do in the first hour? Model: This is disseminated herpes zoster in an immunocompromised host — vesicles spreading well beyond the primary dermatome signal viraemic dissemination, and at 34 with weight loss and night sweats the working diagnosis is undiagnosed HIV with impaired cell-mediated immunity. Start intravenous aciclovir — the drug of choice for severe or disseminated VZV infection — dose-adjusted for renal function, send an HIV test with the first bloods, and screen for the underlying cause of the immunosuppression. The skin finding is the alarm bell for the systemic diagnosis.[12][15]
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